Test Bank for Pharmacology for Nurses 6th Edition by Adams
ISBN-10: 0135218330, ISBN-13: 9780135218334
Pharmacology for Nurses, 6e (Adams)Chapter 1 Introduction to Pharmacology- A nurse is reviewing key events in the history of pharmacology with a student nurse. Which student comment indicates an understanding?
- "Early researchers used themselves as test subjects."
- "A primary goal of pharmacology is to prevent disease."
- "Penicillin is one of the initial drugs isolated from a natural source."
- "Pharmacologists began synthesizing drugs in the laboratory in the nineteenth century."
- Some early researchers, like Friedrich Serturner, used themselves as test subjects.
- An early goal of pharmacology was to relieve human suffering.
- Initial drugs isolated from complex mixtures included morphine, colchicine, curare, and cocaine, but not penicillin.
- By the twentieth century, pharmacologists could synthesize drugs in the laboratory.
- A student nurse asks a nursing instructor why anatomy and physiology as well as microbiology are required courses when the student only wants to learn about pharmacology. What is the best response by the instructor?
- "Because pharmacology is an outgrowth of those subjects."
- "You must learn all, since all of those subjects are part of the curriculum."
- "Knowledge of all those subjects will prepare you to administer medication."
- "An understanding of those subjects is essential to understand pharmacology."
- Pharmacology is an outgrowth of anatomy, physiology, and microbiology, but this is not the most essential reason for the nurse to learn them.
- The nurse must learn anatomy, physiology, and microbiology to understand pharmacology, not because they are part of the curriculum.
- Knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and microbiology prepares the nurse to understand pharmacology, not to provide care such as administration of medications.
- It is essential for the nurse to have a broad knowledge base of many sciences in order to learn pharmacology.
Test Bank for Pharmacology 7th Edition by Hitner
Chapter 01Multiple Choice Questions- Pharmacokinetics is the area of pharmacology that deals with the study of:A. the processes of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.B. the action of drugs on living tissue.C. the use of drugs in treating disease.D. the harmful effects of drugs on living tissue.
- Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a plant?A. InsulinB. DigitalisC. CephalosporinD. Estradiol
- Today, new drugs are mainly derived from:A. chemical synthesis.B. animals.C. plants.D. enzymatic synthesis.
- Which of the following statements is true of toxicity?A. Toxic effects refer to those effects triggered by drugs that are undesirable but not harmful.B. The toxic effects of a drug can be life-threatening.C. The toxic effects of a drug can be controlled by increasing the dosage of the drug.D. Patients are often advised to tolerate the toxicity of a drug in order to benefit from the drug's therapeutic actions.
- Which of the following statements is true of a drug?A. The effects produced by a drug are always desirable.B. The properties of a drug do not influence the effects it produces.C. A drug does not produce more than one effect.D. A pure drug is a chemical compound with a specific chemical structure.
Test Bank Pharmacology for the Surgical Technologist, 4th Edition by Katherine Snyder
Chapter 01: Basic Pharmacology
MULTIPLE CHOICE
- A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates its function is said to be a(n)drug.
- agonist
- antagonist
- idiosyncratic
- pharmacokinetic
ANS: A
Agonist drugs bind to or have an affinity (attraction) for a receptor and cause a particular response.DIF: 1 REF: 14 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:B:1:b, agonist
- Which one of the following isnotused for the classification of drugs?
- Therapeutic action
- Physiologic action
- Affected body system
- Source of origin
ANS: DDrugs are classified by what they do, what they affect, what they are not, and where they come from.DIF: 1 REF: 4 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:B:2, therapeutic actions
- An anticoagulant drug is classified by its
- chemical type.
- source of origin.
- physiologic action.
- therapeutic action.
ANS: DTherapeutic action describes what the drug does for a patient; in this example, it works against coagulation.DIF: 1 REF: 4 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:B:2:a, indications
- Prescriptions must include all of the following informationexcept
- the name of the drug.
- patient’s social security number.
- drug dosage.
- route of administration of the drug.
ANS: BPrescriptions must include the date, name of the patient, name of the drug, dosage, route of administration, and frequency or time of administration. The patient’s social security number will be in the chart but not on a prescription.DIF: 1 REF: 5TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI: B:2, prescription medications
- An order for a drug to be givenas neededis called an order.
- standing
- oral
- stat
- PRN
ANS: DPRN stands forpro re nata,which means that the drug may be given as needed.DIF: 1 REF: 5 TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:D:3:d, PRN
- What does the abbreviationso mean on a prescription?
- One half
- Once, if necessary
- Without
- As desired
ANS: Bsosmeansonce, if necessary(see Table 1-3).DIF: 1 REF: 5TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:B:2, prescription medications
- How is an order for a drug to be takenevery 4 hoursindicated on a prescription?
- q4h
- qid
- qod
- qs
ANS: ATheqmeansevery; the actual number of hours is inserted before theh, which meanshours.DIF: 3 REF: 7TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:B:2, prescription medications
- How is an order for a drug to be giventhree times a dayindicated on a prescription?
- q3h
- hs
- qh
- tid
ANS: Dtidmeansthree times a day(see Table 1-4).DIF: 1 REF: 7TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:B:2, prescription medications
- Which form of drug preparation tends to act more quickly?
- Solid
- Semisolid
- Liquid
- Gas
ANS: DAbsorption of drugs given by inhalation is rapid, especially gases such as inhalation anesthetics, because of the huge numbers of capillaries in the alveoli of the lungs.DIF: 2 REF: 7 TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:G:1, gas
- Which one of the following abbreviations indicates an ointment form of a given drug?
- gtts
- ung
- susp
- soln
ANS: Bungmeansointment.DIF: 1 REF: 8 TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:G:4, semisolid
- Which one of the following abbreviations indicates that a drug is to be given orally?
- IM
- PO
- IV
- SC
ANS: BPOmeansper osor by mouth.DIF: 1 REF: 9 TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:H:4, PO
- How is a medication administered by any routeexceptthe mouth?
- Systemically
- Sublingually
- Parenterally
- Subcutaneously
ANS: CThe termparenteralindicates any route other than the digestive tract.DIF: 3 REF: 9 TOP: AST Core Curriculum XI:H:1, injection/parenteral
- Which one of the following terms is the study of the four basic processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion in response to drugs?
- Pharmacokinetics
- Pharmacodynamics
- Biotransformation
- Sympathomimetics
ANS: AThe study of pharmacokinetics focuses on how the body processes drugs.DIF: 1 REF: 11 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:A:2, pharmacokinetics
- Distribution of drugs within the body is carried out through which one of the following body systems?
- Respiratory
- Circulatory
- Integumentary
- Urinary
ANS: BOnce a drug has been absorbed into the bloodstream, it is transported throughout the body by the circulatory system. Drug molecules eventually diffuse out of the bloodstream to the site of action in the process calleddistribution.DIF: 2 REF: 12 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:A:2:b, distribution
- The time between the administration of a drug and the first appearance of its effects is called
- peak effect.
- onset.
- duration.
- reaction time.
ANS: BThe time between the administration of a drug and the first appearance of effects is called theonset.DIF: 1 REF: 15 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:A:3:a, onset
- Which group of drugs is known as receptor blockers?
- Antagonists
- Agonists
- Antipyretics
- Analgesics
ANS: ADrugs that bind to a receptor and prevent a response are calledantagonists(Fig. 1-11). Antagonists are also calledreceptor blockers.DIF: 2 REF: 14 TOP: AST Core Curriculum X:B:1:c, antagonist
- An expected but unintended effect of a drug is termed a(n)effect.
- idiosyncratic
- adverse
- synergic
- side
ANS: D
Test Bank for Claytons Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 18th Edition by Willihnganz
Chapter 01: Drug Definitions, Standards, and Information SourcesWillihnganz: Clayton’s Basic Pharmacology for Nurses, 18th EditionMULTIPLE CHOICE1.What is the name under which a drug is listed by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?a. | Brand |
b. | Nonproprietary |
c. | Official |
d. | Trademark |
- Which source contains information specific to nutritional supplements?
a. | USP Dictionary of USAN & International Drug Names |
b. | Natural Medicines Comprehensive Database |
c. | United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary (USP NF) |
d. | Drug Interaction Facts |
a. | Drug Facts and Comparisons |
b. | Drug Interaction Facts |
c. | Handbook on Injectable Drugs |
d. | Martindale—The Complete Drug Reference |
a. | Manufacturer’s section |
b. | Brand and Generic name section |
c. | Product category section |
d. | Product information section |
a. | American Drug Index |
b. | American Hospital Formulary |
c. | DailyMed |
d. | Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) |
a. | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938) |
b. | Durham Humphrey Amendment (1952) |
c. | Controlled Substances Act (1970) |
d. | Kefauver Harris Drug Amendment (1962) |
a. | I |
b. | II |
c. | III |
d. | IV |
a. | List smallpox as a health orphan disease. |
b. | Omit the preclinical research phase. |
c. | Extend the clinical research phase. |
d. | Fast track the investigational drug. |
Test bank for Pharmacology 9th Edition Linda McCuistion
Table of ContentsUNIT ONE: Introduction to Pharmacology1. Drug Development and Ethical Considerations2. Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Pharmacogenetics3. Cultural Considerations4. Complementary and Alternative Therapies5. Pediatric Considerations6. Geriatric Considerations7. Drugs in Substance Use DisorderUNIT TWO: Pharmacotherapy and Drug Administration8. The Nursing Process and Patient-Centered Care9. Safety and Quality10. Drug Administration11. Drug CalculationsUNIT THREE: Maintenance of Homeostasis12. Fluid Volume and Electrolytes13. Vitamin and Mineral Replacement14. Nutritional SupportUNIT FOUR: Autonomic Nervous System Drugs15. Adrenergic Agonists and Antagonists16. Cholinergic Agonists and AntagonistsUNIT FIVE: Central and Peripheral Nervous System Drugs17. Stimulants18. Depressants19. Antiseizure Drugs20. Drugs for Parkinsonism and Alzheimer’s Disease21. Drugs for Neuromuscular Disorders and Muscle SpasmsUNIT SIX: Mental and Behavioral Health Drugs22. Antipsychotics and Anxiolytics23. Antidepressants and Mood StabilizersUNIT SEVEN: Pain and Inflammation Management Drugs24. Antiinflammatories25. AnalgesicsUNIT EIGHT: Antimicrobial Drugs26. Antibacterials27. Antituberculars, Antifungals, and Antivirals28. Peptides, Antimalarials, and AnthelminticsUNIT NINE: Immunologic Drugs29. HIV- and AIDS-Related Drugs30. Transplant Drugs31. VaccinesUNIT TEN: Antineoplastics and Biologic Response Modifiers32. Anticancer Drugs33. Targeted Therapies to Treat Cancer34. Biologic Response ModifiersUNIT ELEVEN: Respiratory Drugs35. Upper Respiratory Disorders36. Lower Respiratory DisordersUNIT TWELVE: Cardiovascular Drugs37. Cardiac Glycosides, Antianginals, and Antidysrhythmics38. Diuretics39. Antihypertensives40. Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets, and Thrombolytics41. Antihyperlipidemics and Peripheral VasodilatorsUNIT THIRTEEN: Gastrointestinal Drugs42. Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders43. Antiulcer DrugsUNIT FOURTEEN: Eye, Ear, and Skin Drugs44. Eye and Ear Disorders45. Dermatologic DisordersUNIT FIFTEEN: Endocrine Drugs46. Pituitary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal Disorders47. AntidiabeticsUNIT SIXTEEN: Renal and Urologic Drugs48. Urinary DisordersUNIT SEVENTEEN: Reproductive and Gender-Related Drugs49. Pregnancy and Preterm Labor50. Labor, Delivery, and Postpartum51. Neonatal and Newborn 52. Women’s Reproductive Health53. Men’s Reproductive Health54. Sexually Transmitted InfectionsUNIT EIGHTEEN: Emergency Drugs55. Adult and Pediatric Emergency DrugsTest Bank for Patient-Centered Pharmacology Learning System for the Conscientious Prescriber 1st Edition by Tindall
Chapter 1. Conscientious and Rational Prescribing in the 21st CenturyMultiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.____ 1. Which statement regarding herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements is true?
A. | Herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are not regulated by the U.S. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA). |
B. | Manufacturers must prove the safety of their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements. |
C. | Manufacturers must prove that their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements are free from adulteration. |
D. | Manufacturers must prove the legitimacy of any claims they make about their herbals, vitamins, minerals, and food supplements. |
____ 2. Which amendment to the FDCA established the two classes of drugs: legend or prescription only and over the counter?
A. | Durham-Humphrey Amendment (Prescription Drug Amendment) |
B. | New Drug Application Amendment |
C. | Health Education and Welfare Amendment |
D. | Kefauer Harris Amendment |
____ 3. The package insert (PI) attached to a prescription drug contains all of the following information except:
A. | U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug information. |
B. | Highly detailed adverse effects and dosage information for the prescriber. |
C. | Information in layman’s terms for the patient. |
D. | Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic drug information. |
____ 4. Which of the following best defines the termadulteration of drugs?
A. | Adding contaminants or anything not stated on a drug label |
B. | Claiming a drug is a cure for a certain condition, such as cancer |
C. | Advertising a drug for a poorly defined condition, such as miasma |
D. | Claiming a drug is safe when its safety has not been established in preclinical trials |
____ 5. The majority of “off-label” or unapproved usages for drugs are prescribed for which patient groups?
A. | Pediatric patients and patients on chemotherapy |
B. | Patients with neurologic diseases |
C. | Obese patients |
D. | Pregnant patients |
____ 6. The major goals of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) include all of the following except:
A. | Improving the manufacturing, distribution, prescribing, and dispensing of controlled substances by legitimate persons in the health-care sector. |
B. | Providing research into issues of drug addiction and rehabilitation. |
C. | Stopping the widespread diversion of controlled substances into illicit or “street” channels. |
D. | Establishing laws and criminal sentences for the possession and sale of illicit controlled substances. |
____ 7. Which statement is true regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) categories of scheduled drugs?
A. | Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. |
B. | Schedule I drugs have a low potential for abuse and no accepted medical use in the United States. |
C. | Schedule II drugs have a low potential for abuse. |
D. | Schedule V drugs have a high potential for abuse. |
____ 8. Which statement regarding extemporaneous compounding is false?
A. | Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a specific patient using a physician’s prescription, a drug formula, or a recipe. |
B. | Calculated amounts of ingredients are measured out and made into a uniform mixture. |
C. | Extemporaneous compounding is the pharmacist’s art of preparing a drug product for a patient using his own drug formula rather than a physician’s prescription. |
D. | Pediatric dosages are commonly compounded when only adult dosages are available. |
____ 9.Clinical pharmacologyis best defined as:
A. | The study of the optimum use of medication in patients. |
B. | The study of the human body’s reaction to a drug over a specified time. |
C. | The biologic actions of a drug at its site of action. |
D. | The study of the effects of genetic variations on pharmacologic processes. |
____ 10. Which statement regarding over-the-counter (OTC) drugs is true?
A. | OTC drugs are rarely associated with toxicity or overdose. |
B. | No OTC drugs are also available in a higher dosage form by prescription. |
C. | OTC drugs are generally more expensive than prescription drugs. |
D. | OTC drugs contain directions and information on the label and packaging to allow consumers to self-medicate. |
____ 11. In the early 1960s, the serious birth defects caused by thalidomide prompted which of the following amendments to the FDCA?
A. | Kefauver Harris Drug Efficacy Amendment |
B. | Dietary Supplement and Health Act |
C. | Orphan Drug Status Act |
D. | Controlled Substances Act |
____ 12. Which medication is an example of a schedule I (C-I) drug?
A. | oxycodone |
B. | mescaline |
C. | fentanyl |
D. | diazepam |
____ 13. Which statement regarding schedule II (C-II) controlled substance drugs is true?
A. | Heroin is an example of a schedule II drug. |
B. | Prescribers can write orders that include up to five refills of schedule II prescription drugs. |
C. | Cough syrup with codeine is an example of a schedule II drug. |
D. | Emergency verbal orders for a schedule II drug must be confirmed with a written prescription within 72 hours. |
____ 14. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the number of preventable medical errors per year is approximately:
A. | 100,000. |
B. | 25,000. |
C. | 1 million. |
D. | 500,000. |
____ 15. Adverse drug events:
A. | Occur once a day in every hospital in the United States. |
B. | Do not increase health care-related costs. |
C. | Are less common among Medicare patients. |
D. | Are not common among residents in a long-term care facility. |
____ 16. In 1994, the World Health Organization (WHO) released recommendations for rational prescribing that included all of the following recommendations except:
A. | Use only brand (trade) name drugs. |
B. | Ensure medication choices are safe and effective for the defined problem. |
C. | Monitor the results of treatment. |
D. | Stop the use of a drug when the treatment period is complete. |
____ 17. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. | Telephone communication of drug orders decreases the frequency of medication errors. |
B. | Mail order medications are less likely to cause issues with medication errors. |
C. | Lack of patient history information is a common source of medication errors. |
D. | Patient education regarding medications should be left to the pharmacist to avoid medication errors. |
____ 18. Which statement is true regarding medication errors?
A. | They are most commonly the result of a single event. |
B. | They are most commonly the result of multiple events. |
C. | They are usually caused by a single careless person. |
D. | A faulty system will not contribute to medication errors. |
____ 19. The “Signa,” orsignatura, component of a written prescription includes:
A. | Patient data, such as age, name, and gender. |
B. | Prescriber data, such as name, practice location and phone number, and professional degree. |
C. | Instructions the prescriber has given to the patient, which will appear on medication label. |
D. | Brand or generic name and strength of medication. |
____ 20. Which of the following examples could be the inscription component on a prescription?
A. | John Smith, RPA-C, License number |
B. | Dispense # 20 |
C. | Cefuroxime 500 mg |
D. | Take one tablet PO twice daily for 10 days |
____ 21. Which of the following examples could be the subscription component on a prescription?
A. | Dispense # 100 ml |
B. | John Smith, RPA-C, License number |
C. | Patient name and address |
D. | Take 5 ml PO twice daily for 10 days |
____ 22. A prescriber wants a patient to receive the Dilantin brand and does not wish to substitute with the generic, phenytoin. Which of the following statements is false regarding generic and brand substitution?
A. | The Drug Substitution Law allows a pharmacist to substitute a generic bioequivalent drug for one stated on a prescription. |
B. | A prescriber can write “DAW,” meaning “dispense as written,” to ensure that a patient receives the brand name drug. |
C. | The FDA regulates and reports on bioequivalence testing for generic drugs. |
D. | All brand drugs can be switched to generic without biologically significant fluctuations. |
____ 23. Which abbreviation indicates that a patient should take their medication at bedtime?
A. | HS |
B. | BID |
C. | AC |
D. | PRN |
____ 24. A patient is instructed to apply one drop to each eye. Which abbreviation for these instructions is accurate?
A. | One gtt ou |
B. | One gr ad |
C. | One gtt au |
D. | One gtt od |
____ 25. Which abbreviation indicates that a medication should be taken by mouth twice daily?
A. | po BID |
B. | po ac |
C. | po qd |
D. | po TIW |
____ 26. Which abbreviation indicates that three drops should be placed in both ears?
A. | Three gtt as |
B. | Three gtt ad |
C. | Three gtt au |
D. | Three gtt od |